Can anyone explain to me why it’s apparently perfectly legal to give money to a supplier and receive in exchange a digital download containing the equivalent of a CD, but not acceptable to buy a CD, rip it, then sell it on?
In both scenarios the end result is very similar - your hard drive contains a digital copy of the album for which you’ve paid (I’m talking here about new products, not s/h), the artist has received his/her royalty cut and you don’t possess a physical, tangible product.
I can see that by selling the CD you are perhaps depriving the artist of an additional royalty (but only if the buyer were to be in the market for a £10-£15 purchase as opposed to a couple of quid). Other than that, I really can see no practical difference. Am I missing something blindingly obvious?